its a cumulative chance over time that makes the % so high. If I bet on a single number on a 100-number roulette wheel i would have a %1 chance of hitting that number each spin. But, if i spin it 100 times with a 1% chance of hitting each time, i have an overall 67% chance of winning once after those 100 spins, or 25% chance over thirty spins. (very simplified explanation and i had to look it up due to being a C-student in math at every level).
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anybody else reading this besides me have a little trouble following the numbers?
how can a 1% (1 in 100 yrs) suddenly turn into a 67% chance?????
its a cumulative chance over time that makes the % so high. If I bet on a single number on a 100-number roulette wheel i would have a %1 chance of hitting that number each spin. But, if i spin it 100 times with a 1% chance of hitting each time, i have an overall 67% chance of winning once after those 100 spins, or 25% chance over thirty spins. (very simplified explanation and i had to look it up due to being a C-student in math at every level).